$s=\sqrt{\dfrac{1}{N-1}\sum_{i=0}^N (x_i-\bar x)^2 }$

$\lim_{n \to +\infty} \mathbf{P} \left( \left| \dfrac{f}{n} -p\right|> \varepsilon \right)=0$

$\displaystyle \int_{a}^{b} f'(x) \text{d}x=f(b)-f(a)$

$\displaystyle \lim_{n \to +\infty} \dfrac{n!}{\sqrt{2\pi n}\left(\dfrac{n}{e} \right)^n}=1$

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